proud2deviate
Member
It seems that anytime somebody goes to court for a weapons violation recently (mostly having to do with NFA violations,) they want to defend their actions based on the militia clause. "I need/want/can legally own the weapon because I am/I'm in/I'm trying to form a Well Regulated Militia." Is it just me, or is that absolutely the wrong thing to do? First, I don't think this tactic has ever been successful. The judge usually makes some statement to the effect that the weapon in question is not in common use by well regulated militias, or that it's unsuited to militia use, or something along those lines. Then the defendant finds themselves up a particular creek without a paddle.
Second (and proud2deviate opinion comes in here. Get your salt shaker set to dispense one grain,) the militia clause has little or nothing to do with the right the 2A is supposed to protect. Let's review;
"A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
I'm not up on whatever the preferred capitalization and punctuation is nowadays, so my humble apologies are offered for mistakes in that area. I'll try to keep this short (Too late!) The first part of 2A, the militia clause, is a reason, not a requirement. It's one of many reasons, but it's a reason given when none is needed. It's rather like asking someone for a justification for practicing their chosen religion. Tell me that wouldn't raise an eyebrow or three. In my opinion, we need to thoroughly separate the militia clause from the right. We need to stop whining "But it's for the militia!" and start directing attention to "SHALL NO BE INFRINGED" in spite of the militia clause, not because of it. And of course, this fails to even take into account that the "Well Regulated", is frequently seen as justification to "regulate" the 2A out of existence, regardless of it's original meaning of "well formed" or "well equipped".
Opinions welcomed, of course.
Second (and proud2deviate opinion comes in here. Get your salt shaker set to dispense one grain,) the militia clause has little or nothing to do with the right the 2A is supposed to protect. Let's review;
"A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
I'm not up on whatever the preferred capitalization and punctuation is nowadays, so my humble apologies are offered for mistakes in that area. I'll try to keep this short (Too late!) The first part of 2A, the militia clause, is a reason, not a requirement. It's one of many reasons, but it's a reason given when none is needed. It's rather like asking someone for a justification for practicing their chosen religion. Tell me that wouldn't raise an eyebrow or three. In my opinion, we need to thoroughly separate the militia clause from the right. We need to stop whining "But it's for the militia!" and start directing attention to "SHALL NO BE INFRINGED" in spite of the militia clause, not because of it. And of course, this fails to even take into account that the "Well Regulated", is frequently seen as justification to "regulate" the 2A out of existence, regardless of it's original meaning of "well formed" or "well equipped".
Opinions welcomed, of course.