All - thought piece here. Is a city or state legally liable for personal damages if they deprive the individual (by law or by regulation) of their ability to defend themselves? I'm not addressing if a private individual or business owner declares that they don't want firearms on their premises (which is their right under property rights), but what I want to know is can a state or other governmental entity be held liable for damages if harm falls to the individual? In essence, if there is a gun ban in a given jurisdiction, then the individual cannot defend themselves, therefore the governmental structure that prevented the victim from protecting themselves has now taken on the specific responsibility of providing individual security. If this is the case, and violence occurs to the individual, can they sue the state or municipality for damages for failing to protect them? If this has been answered elsewhere, then please point me in the direction! Thanks!