Wisco
member
- Joined
- Dec 13, 2013
- Messages
- 1,239
It’s been more than a few years since my last class on Constitutional law and I’m looking for some light to medium reading on how the Takings Clause has been previously implemented. Especially in regard to banned items.
I don’t think anyone is currently in danger of losing their property, specifically firearms, but I’m interested in the “what if?”
When states banned specific guns, were owners compensated? When auto knives were banned? How about prohibition? Booze was legal, people owned it, then it was illegal. Was anyone compensated?
How about the 1934 NFA? Amnesty or surrender, eliminating the need for the government to compensate?
Say it becomes illegal for a 19 year old to buy a rifle. If he already owns the rifle, obviously that is what it is - he already possesses it. What if that same person buys a rifle and then the possession of that rifle for someone his age is criminalized? Is that person likely to be compensated? Or must he just rid himself of the rifle before the law takes effect?
Curiosity has the better of me and if anyone can point me in the right direction to some statutes covering this, Supreme Court decisions, or state court cases, I can read from there.
Maybe this isn’t even a taking and I’m confusing public use with something that isn’t really a use. If not, what is it?
Sorry, there’s a lot going on in this post...anything anyone can offer on any of it would be greatly appreciated!
I don’t think anyone is currently in danger of losing their property, specifically firearms, but I’m interested in the “what if?”
When states banned specific guns, were owners compensated? When auto knives were banned? How about prohibition? Booze was legal, people owned it, then it was illegal. Was anyone compensated?
How about the 1934 NFA? Amnesty or surrender, eliminating the need for the government to compensate?
Say it becomes illegal for a 19 year old to buy a rifle. If he already owns the rifle, obviously that is what it is - he already possesses it. What if that same person buys a rifle and then the possession of that rifle for someone his age is criminalized? Is that person likely to be compensated? Or must he just rid himself of the rifle before the law takes effect?
Curiosity has the better of me and if anyone can point me in the right direction to some statutes covering this, Supreme Court decisions, or state court cases, I can read from there.
Maybe this isn’t even a taking and I’m confusing public use with something that isn’t really a use. If not, what is it?
Sorry, there’s a lot going on in this post...anything anyone can offer on any of it would be greatly appreciated!