American1776
Member
Hi all. I'm pretty new here. As I posted in the autoloader forum, I just purchased my first handgun, a Sig Sauer P232. I shot 100 rounds of CCI Blazer Brass through it, and it functioned flawlessly. I decided, for now, that since it seems to feed the FMJ rounds well, I'd stock up on ball ammo.
I know that some folks here subscribe to the philosophy that says that ball ammo in a 380 pistol can maximize penetration where JHPs may not reliably penetrate (although there are good SD rounds out there). My question is: I live in a town house with my significant other. In the event of a home invasion, would 380 ball ammo be significant cause for concern with overpenetration (assuming I put rounds on target)? That is, how likely (or unlikely) is a 95 grain fmj round out of my Sig P232 to perforate through the target (assuming CM hits), perforate a wall and land in a neighbor's house? I have standard pressure FMJ rounds, and the Sig has a 3.6 inch barrel.
Thanks in advance.
I know that some folks here subscribe to the philosophy that says that ball ammo in a 380 pistol can maximize penetration where JHPs may not reliably penetrate (although there are good SD rounds out there). My question is: I live in a town house with my significant other. In the event of a home invasion, would 380 ball ammo be significant cause for concern with overpenetration (assuming I put rounds on target)? That is, how likely (or unlikely) is a 95 grain fmj round out of my Sig P232 to perforate through the target (assuming CM hits), perforate a wall and land in a neighbor's house? I have standard pressure FMJ rounds, and the Sig has a 3.6 inch barrel.
Thanks in advance.