PedalBiker
Member
How can it be that if I comply with a law I have no legal standing to challenge it, no matter how adversely it impacts me?
I am wondering if we need to find a way to gain access to the courts.
If my local town bans 6.5 shot revolvers then I can't buy one, so I am impacted, yet I supposedly have no standing to sue. If my town bans spring compressors then I can't repair my McPhearson struts, same deal, I have no standing to sue. Why is this?
If I am under this jurisdiction, and I am adversely impacted I should, by any reasonable interpretation of reality, have standing to challenge the law in the courts. Where did we go so wrong? What portion of the constitution bars me from access to the courts to overturn oppressive legislation (or case law)??
I am wondering if we need to find a way to gain access to the courts.
If my local town bans 6.5 shot revolvers then I can't buy one, so I am impacted, yet I supposedly have no standing to sue. If my town bans spring compressors then I can't repair my McPhearson struts, same deal, I have no standing to sue. Why is this?
If I am under this jurisdiction, and I am adversely impacted I should, by any reasonable interpretation of reality, have standing to challenge the law in the courts. Where did we go so wrong? What portion of the constitution bars me from access to the courts to overturn oppressive legislation (or case law)??