Ok, so I'm a total first year law school nerd. Please excuse me for a second. I'm wondering about the legal ramifications of "killing" a bunch of zombies. You see, if "taking a life" is a requisite component of 'murder' or 'killing', I'd think there ought to be no legal restriction on zombie killing. Since they are already dead, or "undead" if you prefer, it is impossible to take their life. Similar to shooting a corpse.
It seems to me that the worst one could be charged with is mutilating a corpse, or discharging a firearm within city limits and the resulting disturbance of the peace.
However, what if Andrew (just to pick a random name) does not know that zombies are already dead, and he still goes after them and kills them? You see in this case, Andrew has both mens rea (the intent to commit the crime/act in an evil manner), and actus reus (the commission of the illegal act) in his attept to kill them. However, the fact that they are already dead prevents Andrew from being physically able to kill them. Is he guilty of attempted murder?
In which kind of "life status" does the law consider zombies to exist? Are they in a "quasi-lifelike state"?
What other factors might I be missing here?
I purposely posted this question on THR because I know how many lawyers/judges/legal types hang out here. This is a very urgent matter. I hate zombies, but do not want to jeopardize my eligibility for admission to the CT state bar at the end of law school.
By the way, assume that we are talking about goint out purposely to kill zombies. No weaseling out of this by calling it self-defense. Andrew is a blood-thirsty zombie killer, who is going out of his way to kill them. This is a prima facia case of unbridled hatred for the undead among us.
It seems to me that the worst one could be charged with is mutilating a corpse, or discharging a firearm within city limits and the resulting disturbance of the peace.
However, what if Andrew (just to pick a random name) does not know that zombies are already dead, and he still goes after them and kills them? You see in this case, Andrew has both mens rea (the intent to commit the crime/act in an evil manner), and actus reus (the commission of the illegal act) in his attept to kill them. However, the fact that they are already dead prevents Andrew from being physically able to kill them. Is he guilty of attempted murder?
In which kind of "life status" does the law consider zombies to exist? Are they in a "quasi-lifelike state"?
What other factors might I be missing here?
I purposely posted this question on THR because I know how many lawyers/judges/legal types hang out here. This is a very urgent matter. I hate zombies, but do not want to jeopardize my eligibility for admission to the CT state bar at the end of law school.
By the way, assume that we are talking about goint out purposely to kill zombies. No weaseling out of this by calling it self-defense. Andrew is a blood-thirsty zombie killer, who is going out of his way to kill them. This is a prima facia case of unbridled hatred for the undead among us.