NineseveN
member
Drewtam said:Your right, if a (violent) felon is loose, then nothing will prevent him from obtaining a firearm irregardless of the law.
But thats not the point, is it?
Did the law PREVENT them from commiting murder, rape, assualt, etc?
Did the law work to stop them from commiting a crime the SECOND- THIRD- FOURTH time?!
Clearly NOT!
So what is the point of those laws; they are to no effect!
Using your very standard, you make all laws void. I've seen the quote "It may be that all laws are useless, the virtuous man will do whats right and has no need for them, and the criminal could care less" (I paraphrase, badly, from memory).
Laws punish crime and hopefully act as a deterring agent, I never said laws stop crime; they define it and how it is to be punished. So why is the act of simply possessing a firearm a crime for a guy that ran a bookie business? What purpose does that serve? There are already extra legal penalties for using a firearm in the commission of a felony in many places. I do not claim to know the laws of every state, but I can assure you that using a firearm or even body armor in the commission of a felony pulls an extra charge in a lot of places. Perhaps someone more intimately familiar with these laws can chime in on that aspect and save me the trouble of researching it nationwide.
The thing with both laws is, unless there is probable cause to search the felon (which doesn't just materialize out of thin air), neither law can be charged against the felon until after they commit the crime and get caught, so again, it really does nothing to make it against the law for a felon to own, carry or possess a firearm if it is also illegal for them to carry or possess one during the commission of a crime.
So again, What problem does it actually solve and how does it really solve it?