It was the locking block hitting the slide, not the barrel.
I described it as the barrel hitting the locking block. In a Glock, the locking block is there to do two things. Firstly, the lug on the bottom of the barrel deflects off of the locking block, pulling the barrel down and unlocking it. And secondly, the locking block arrests the rearward movement of the barrel after the barrel has unlocked. IOW, the barrel hits the locking block.
When the barrel hits the locking block hard (read FAST) enough, the frame bends and torques enough to momentarily push the front tip of the locking block against the bottom of the slide. The slide is still moving. This is what causes the peening of the bottom of the slide.
IOW, the peening happens when slide velocity is high, due to the barrel hitting the locking block harder.
I had more +P+ through the 17, and that was also the question, why the 9mm gun shooting +P+ didnt show the same wear as the 357SIG or .40s.
How do you explain that?
The 357 SIG and 40SW shoot bullets with higher momentum, enough said. Even if the 357 SIG is only 100 fps faster at a given bullet weight, it's more. There's just a point where it's enough to cause the locking block to push against the slide. It makes sense that the 357 SIG could cause more peening than the 40SW, because the mass of a Glock 357 SIG barrel is significantly greater than that of the 40SW barrel, even though the total mass of slide+barrel is almost the same. IOW, even if the momentum of the slide+barrel is the same or even slightly lower in the 357 SIG, the barrel can still have more momentum that must be stopped by the locking block.
There's something I don't understand about the .357SIG. Beretta refused to come out with a .357SIG version of the 92 pistols citing excessive slide velocity as the reason. They had no such qualms about introducing a .40 version as the 96. I've messed around with the numbers and I can't see that the .357SIG slide velocity is significantly higher than .40S&W slide velocity. But Beretta was clearly on to something--it seems farly obvious that the .357SIG is harder on guns than the .40 is.
Idle conjecture warning:
For one thing, 40SW SAAMI max pressure is 35k psi. The 357 SIG is 40k psi. So even though the 357 is tossing lighter bullets, the maximum momentum is still going to be just slightly higher, maybe? I don't know. I have never really looked at 357 SIG reloading data.
Also, a side effect of being overbore (and using slower powders) means the 357 SIG has more muzzle blast. Muzzle blast adds a little to recoil. Even though the mass of the powder's end products is minimal, the peak escape velocity of the gases just behind the bullet is much higher than the muzzle velocity of the bullet. So it has some little effect.
Also, higher velocity means the transfer of momentum occurs in a shorter timeframe. The peak stresses on certain parts would be just slightly higher. I'm not sure how the 92 operates, exactly... and uh, speaking of which, doesn't the 92 have a weird locking mechanism with a sorta fixed-ish barrel? Is the 92 even recoil-operated? That might be the reason, right there.