Please help me understand the argument that state X, say Massachusetts, is experiencing increasing crime because buyers can just go across the state line and buy guns. This argument has bothered me for a long time.
To the uneducated that may sound perfectly reasonable but wait a minute. Residents in one state cannot legally go into another state and buy handguns directly. The purchase has to go through an FFL in the buyers home state. So the resident's state still controls the purchase.
So the argument of open state borders explaining the high crime rate in gun restrictive states is so obviously false how do they even make that argument? Or am I missing something?
Thanks in advance.
To the uneducated that may sound perfectly reasonable but wait a minute. Residents in one state cannot legally go into another state and buy handguns directly. The purchase has to go through an FFL in the buyers home state. So the resident's state still controls the purchase.
So the argument of open state borders explaining the high crime rate in gun restrictive states is so obviously false how do they even make that argument? Or am I missing something?
Thanks in advance.