Yes it does. So what? Article VI, Clause 2 still says:303tom said:And The Tenth Amendment says; The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.
Clause 2. This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby; any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding.
And as provided for by the Founding Fathers in Article III of the Constitution, disputes about which applies when and how will be a matter for the federal courts.
In over two hundred years that has not been adopted by the courts. It seems it's pretty unlikely to be now.MJU1983 said:It's a legal theory recognized by Thomas Jefferson and James Madison. The Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions of 1798 spell it out clearly. James Madison said the states were “duty bound to resist” when the federal government violated the Constitution....
No, I'm pointing out that any dispute about whether a federal law has been adopted in pursuance to the Constitution will be decided, as the Founding Fathers intended, by the federal courts -- not by you or by the Legislature of the State of Missouri.MJU1983 said:...You are reading the Supremacy Clause like this: “This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in pursuance thereof, plus any old laws we may choose to pass, whether constitutional or not, shall be the supreme law of the land.” The key part to the Supremacy Clause is "in pursuance thereof."...
MJU1983 said:...Which part of the Constitution indicates that? Judicial review is not in the Constitution. It was a precedent set by Marbury v. Madison (1803)....
Again, as the Founding Fathers provided in the Constitutions (Article III):
Section 1. The judicial Power of the United States, shall be vested in one supreme Court, and in such inferior Courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain and establish....
Section 2. The Judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution,...
And thus disagreements concerning the application of the the Constitution to the resolution of particular disputes is the province of the federal courts -- something clearly the Founders intended.
The exercise of judicial power and the deciding of cases arising under the Constitution necessarily involves interpreting and applying the Constitution to the circumstances of the matter in controversy in order to decide the dispute.
And, as Chief Justice John Marshall wrote in the decision in Marbury v. Madison, 5 U.S. (1 Cranch) 137 (1803), emphasis added:
....It is emphatically the province and duty of the Judicial Department [the judicial branch] to say what the law is. Those who apply the rule to particular cases must, of necessity, expound and interpret that rule. If two laws conflict with each other, the Courts must decide on the operation of each.
So, if a law [e.g., a statute or treaty] be in opposition to the Constitution, if both the law and the Constitution apply to a particular case, so that the Court must either decide that case conformably to the law, disregarding the Constitution, or conformably to the Constitution, disregarding the law, the Court must determine which of these conflicting rules governs the case. This is of the very essence of judicial duty. If, then, the Courts are to regard the Constitution, and the Constitution is superior to any ordinary act of the Legislature, the Constitution, and not such ordinary act, must govern the case to which they both apply.....
Note also that many of the Founding Fathers (the delegates to the Constitutional Convention who signed the Constitution) were lawyers. They were familiar with English Common Law (the basis of out legal system) and that for a long time it had been customary for the courts, under the Common Law, to consider the validity of such matters as the Acts of Parliament and the actions of the Crown under the rather amorphous collection of statutes, court judgments, treaties, etc., that became understood in the Common Law to be the English Constitution. And thus there was Common Law precedent, as no doubt understood by the Founding Fathers, for the invalidation of a law as unconstitutional being within the scope of the exercise of judicial power. (And English cases continued to be cites by courts of the United States for many years after Independence.)
And while John Marshall may not have been a Founding Father, he wasn't at the Constitutional Convention, he should at least be entitled to be considered a founding uncle. He was a delegate to the Virginia Convention that would ratify or reject the Constitution and, together with James Madison and Edmund Randolf, led the fight for ratification.
So:
- In its ruling in Marbury the Supreme Court was merely exercising its explicit authority given it in the Constitution to exercise judicial power to decide cases arising under the Constitution. In doing so and reaching its decision in Marbury it was applying established Common Law principles -- just as courts were, and are, expected to do.
- And as Marshall pointed out, to decide the matter in Marbury the Court had to either sustain an act of Congress or conclude that the act of Congress was contrary to the Constitution, and thus sustain the Constitution. Either the act of Congress was valid, yielding one result, or it was invalid as conflicting with the Constitution, yielding a different result.
- In other words, the Court could not, in Marbury, decide the case without choosing either a law enacted by Congress or the Constitution.
- And without judicial review under the Constitution of acts of Congress or other actions of public officials, what would be the remedy for such a law or action that one believed was repugnant under the Constitution? Do we have a civil war over every disagreement about the constitutionality of a law? Does each person get to decide for himself whether a law is constitutional and therefore whether to abide by it?
Only if the United States Supreme Court sustains the proposition. Can you cite any U. S. Supreme Court ruling which could serve as a basis for a future ruling sustaining the proposition that a State may nullify federal law?MJU1983 said:...In the same way, why can’t states nullifying federal laws set a precedent?...
In fact, the U. S. Supreme Court has consistently rejected State attempts to nullify federal law. See:
- United States v. Peters, 9 U.S. (5 Cranch) 115 (1809)
- Martin v. Hunter's Lessee, 14 U.S. (1 Wheat.) 304 (1816)
- Cohens v. Virginia, 19 U.S. (6 Wheat.) 264 (1821)
- McCulloch v. Maryland, 17 U.S. (4 Wheat.) 316 (1819)
- Osborn v. Bank of the United States, 22 U.S. (9 Wheat.) 738 (1824)
- Worcester v. Georgia, 31 U.S. (6 Pet.) 515 (1832)
- Prigg v. Pennsylvania, 41 U.S. 539 (1842)
- Ableman v. Booth, 62 U.S. 506 (1859)
- Cooper v. Aaron, 358 U.S. 1 (1958)
- Bush v. Orleans Parish School Board, 188 F. Supp. 916 (E.D. La. 1960), aff'd 364 U.S. 500 (1960).