think you guys are still in the weapons mindset and over complicating things. You can still defend yourself without a weapon. A "sucker punch" or a "groin kick" is enough to "stop the threat", especially since the thief is not paying attention to you.
OK - let's talk about that. But first, lemme trot out what I think are the relevant statutes in my state's code. First up - Texas law does allow the use of force to stop a thief or trespasser:
Sec. 9.41. PROTECTION OF ONE'S OWN PROPERTY. (a) A person in lawful possession of land or tangible, movable property is justified in using force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to prevent or terminate the other's trespass on the land or unlawful interference with the property.
Texas law also allows the use of deadly force in defense of property under specific circumstances:
Sec. 9.42. DEADLY FORCE TO PROTECT PROPERTY. A person is justified in using deadly force against another to protect land or tangible, movable property:
(1) if he would be justified in using force against the other under Section 9.41; and
(2) when and to the degree he reasonably believes the deadly force is
immediately necessary:
(A) to prevent the other's imminent commission of arson, burglary, robbery,
aggravated robbery, theft during the nighttime, or criminal mischief during the
nighttime; or
(B) to prevent the other who is fleeing immediately after committing burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, or theft during the nighttime from escaping with the property; and
(3) he reasonably believes that:
(A) the land or property cannot be protected or recovered by any other means; or
(B) the use of force other than deadly force to protect or recover the land or property would expose the actor or another to a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury.
Finally, Texas law allows me to produce a weapon as a threat of deadly force but does not consider that to be deadly force:
Sec. 9.04. THREATS AS JUSTIFIABLE FORCE. The threat of force is justified when the use of force is justified by this chapter. For purposes of this section, a threat to cause death or serious bodily injury by the production of a weapon or otherwise, as long as the actor's purpose is limited to creating an apprehension that he will use deadly force if necessary, does not constitute the use of deadly force.
So, given our scenario - the law seems to say that I can either lay hands on the miscreant or produce a gun to create an apprehension of deadly force, but I cannot use deadly force unless it meets the criteria of Section 9.42. If I stop thinking RIGHT HERE, I will likely conclude that it's OK to sucker-punch our hapless miscreant, if I chose an active intervention as opposed to a more passive reaction.
But I wanna ponder this a bit more, just to make sure that I'm right. After all, the implications for getting this wrong are potentially very dramatic to me and my family....
In retrospect, it's fairly unlikely that the use of force on the miscreant will not be resisted by the miscreant. It's also possible that there will be more than one miscreant. That means that, unless there is only one Bad Guy and unless I manage to cold-cock that lone miscreant, I'll likely have a scuffle on my hands if I attempt to use force. Pushing aside the obvious physical risks that I have created for myself that must be overcome, this 'hands-on' approach also raises the possibility that the scuffle will escalate to a level requiring the use of deadly force. So let's go look at that:
Sec. 9.31. SELF-DEFENSE. (a) Except as provided in Subsection (b), a person is justified in using force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to protect the actor against the other's use or attempted use of unlawful force. The actor's belief that the force was immediately necessary as described by this subsection is presumed to be reasonable if the actor:
(1) knew or had reason to believe that the person against whom the force was used:
(A) unlawfully and with force entered, or was attempting to enter unlawfully
and with force, the actor's occupied habitation, vehicle, or place of business or employment;
(B) unlawfully and with force removed, or was attempting to remove unlawfully and with force, the actor from the actor's habitation, vehicle, or place of business or employment; or
(C) was committing or attempting to commit aggravated kidnapping, murder,
sexual assault, aggravated sexual assault, robbery, or aggravated robbery;
(2) did not provoke the person against whom the force was used; and
(3) was not otherwise engaged in criminal activity, other than a Class C
misdemeanor that is a violation of a law or ordinance regulating traffic at the
time the force was used.
That sounds OK so far.
(b) The use of force against another is not justified:
(1) in response to verbal provocation alone;
(2) to resist an arrest or search that the actor knows is being made by a peace officer, or by a person acting in a peace officer's presence and at his
direction, even though the arrest or search is unlawful, unless the resistance
is justified under Subsection (c);
(3) if the actor consented to the exact force used or attempted by the other;
(4) if the actor provoked the other's use or attempted use of unlawful force, unless: (A) the actor abandons the encounter, or clearly communicates to the other his intent to do so reasonably believing he cannot safely abandon the encounter; and
(B) the other nevertheless continues or attempts to use unlawful force against the actor; or
Hmm. That muddies things somewhat, and leaves some legal ambiguity. Is the use of force in defense of property going to be considered 'provoking' a response that escalated to deadly force? Well, I'd like to think not.
But I know of one case in Austin in which somebody was robbed at gunpoint at night, chased the robber down, wound up in an altercation that resulted in gunplay, and was prosecuted and convicted for their actions. The robbery victim attempted to use the law within Section 9.42 as a defense and failed, since the jury decided that the stolen property could have been otherwise recovered (replaced via insurance claims). More to the point, the robbery victim's claim of self defense under Section 9.31 was rejected by the jury
because the altercation that resulted in the use of deadly force was initiated by the robbery victim. In other words, the statements in Texas Penal Code Chapter 9, Sections 9.31, 9.41, and 9.42 did NOT provide sufficient legal cover for the robbery victim to convince the DA, and ultimately a jury, that his conduct was lawful. There are doubless many cases in which a successful defense was mounted, but this is at least one example where it was not.
So, knowing this to be an ambiguous area of the law leads me to conclude that using force, but not deadly force, in defense of property is NOT going to be a wise first choice in my state, or at least in areas within my state - certainly not if I wish to avoid the hassle of a potential indictment and subsequent legal fees. Therefore, I will choose to find alternate means by which to deal with the miscreants.
That will likely involve first calling 911 and leaving the line open during the remainder of the situation, attempting to video/photo the miscreant and whatever transportation that they have, and defending myself against any aggressive actions that they may decide to take.
There may be other options, and that is what
I'd really like to hear. But in Texas, based upon what I know, it is simply not a legal slam-dunk to assault a trespasser or thief.